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The IPSec function on the Eudemon supports NAT traversal. A. True B. False Answer: A
The TCP SYN flood attack usually occurs during the TCP handshake process. How many handshakes are required to set up a TCP connection? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: C
Which of the following statements are correct regarding default gateway in the network running VRRP? A. Configure only one gateway for the PC which is the IP address of Master. B. Configure only one gateway for the PC which is the IP address of virtual router. C. Configure two gateways for the Pc which are the IP addresses of Master slave. D. Configure three gateways for the PC which are the IP addresses of Master, and virtual router. Answer: B
Which of the following routing technologies are supported by the Eudemon 200E? A. Static route B. Policy-based routing C. Routing policy D. Route iteration Answer: ABCD
You cannot set an aging time for the blacklist of the Eudemon. A. True B. False Answer: B
Which of the following statements about the security policies for the Eudemon are true? A. By default, a user in the Local zone can access other zones. B. By default, a user in the Trust zone can access the DMZ. C. By default, a user in the Untrust zone cannot access the Trust zone. D. By default, a user in a zone of the firewall cannot access any other zone of the firewall. Answer: CD
Which of the following attacks are DDoS attacks? A. SYN flood B. SYB/ACK flood C. UDP flood D. CC attack E. HTTP get flood Answer: ABCDE
What is the function of the peer ignore command? A. Deletes a BGP peer. B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not receive the routes sent from the peer. C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not advertise routes to the peer. D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all related routing information. Answer: D
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You need to encrypt a media file. Which type of encryption should you use? A. secure token service B. envelope C. PlayReady D. storage Answer: C
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Answer:
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the business continuity requirements. Which two features should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. SQL Database Standard B. Azure Backup C. SQL Database Premium D. SQL Database Express Answer: A,B
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You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor information app. Which service should you use? A. Azure Mobile Service B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing C. Azure Queue Messaging D. Azure Notification Hub Answer: C
You need to configure availability for the virtual machines that the company is migrating to Azure. What should you implement? A. Traffic Manager B. Express Route C. Update Domains D. Cloud Services Answer: B
You need to recommend a solution that allows partners to authenticate. Which solution should you recommend? A. Configure the federation provider to trust social identity providers. B. Configure the federation provider to use the Azure Access Control service. C. Create a new directory in Azure Active Directory and create a user account for the partner. D. Create an account on the VanArsdel domain for the partner and send an email message that contains the password to the partner. Answer: B
You need to select the appropriate solution for monitoring the .NET application. What should you recommend? A. Visual Studio IntelliTrace B. Application Insights C. Data Factory D. Microsoft Analytics Platform Answer: B
You need to configure the deployment of the storage analysis application. What should you do? A. Create a new Mobile Service. B. Configure the deployment from source control. C. Add a new deployment slot. D. Turn on continuous integration. Answer: B
HOTSPOT You need implement tools at the client's location for monitoring and deploying Azure resources. Which tools should you use? To answer, select the appropriate on-premises tool for each task in the answer area.
Answer:
You need to configure availability for the virtual machines that the company is migrating to Azure. What should you implement? A. Traffic Manager B. Availability Sets C. Virtual Machine Autoscaling D. Cloud Services Answer: D
DRAG DROP You need to recommend data storage mechanisms for the solution. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate data storage mechanism to the correct information type. Each data storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
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A customer created a volume with the wrong language code. What should a customer do to correct this problem? A. Delete the volume and create a volume with the correct language code. B. Take the volume offline and change the language code. C. Change the language code on the volume. D. Change the language code on the parent storage virtual machine. Answer: A
You have multiple volumes that are exported to a group of hosts within your environment. A new host needs access to the volumes. Which two actions accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Mount the new exports from the host. B. Create a new SVM. C. Create a rule in the export policy on the SVM. D. Create a new data LIF on the SVM. Answer: A,C
A customer wants to use a UTA2 PCIe card in a new FAS8000 system. Which three steps must be completed before the customer is able to use the ports for Fc access to an FCP switch? (Choose three.) A. Use the system hardware unified-connect modify command to change the personality from initiator to target. B. Verify the WWPN of the UTA2 so that these can be used in the igroup to map the LUNs for host access. C. Verify that the correct SFP+ is installed for FC. D. Verify the card¡¯s hardware configuration by running the system hardware unified-connect show command. E. Verify that Data ONTAP iSCSI, GIFS, and NFS are licensed on the system. Answer: A,C,D
What is the maximum number of nodes allowed in an FAS8000 series with a SAN configuration? A. 24 B. 8 C. 4 D. 2 Answer: B
A customer wants to improve write performance on their FAS2552 HA system. The system is built with SAS drives, and they are not interested in purchasing additional disk shelves. The workload consists of mostly small, random overwrites and random reads. What should the customer do to improve performance? A. Enable free space reallocation on the aggregate. B. Enable FlashCache on both nodes. C. Increase the amount of NVRAM in the system. D. Assign a Flash Pool RAID group to the aggregates. Answer: A
You create a 1000 GB volume with space-guarantee set to none and fractional-reserve set to 0. In that volume you create a 400 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. How much space is available in the volume before data is written to the LUN? A. 400 GB B. 0 GB C. 600 GB D. 1000 GB Answer: C
You notice your indirect I/O performance between nodes in your 4-node cluster is slowing down from prior week. Each node has two 10 GB connections to the cluster interconnect, one to each switch. You are using four out of 12 available ports on each cluster interconnect switch. Your cluster network utilization is over 80%. What should you do to increase cluster interconnect performance? A. Change the SFP+ from 10 Gb to 16 Gb on each node and switch. B. Add two more cluster interconnect connections per node. C. Add additional ISLs between the two cluster interconnect switches. D. Change the cable from TwinAx to optical with SFP+ for better throughput. Answer: B
Which statement describes a MetroCluster environment in clustered Data ONTAP? A. A single cluster at each site interconnected using FC switches and Ethernet switches. B. A single cluster at each site interconnected using FC switches only. C. A single HA pair cabled across sites using FC switches. D. A single HA pair stretched across sites using extended cables. Answer: B
Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM? A. FTP B. CIFS C. HTTP D. TFTP Answer: B
Which two backup engines are supported within clustered Data ONTAP? (Choose two.) A. SMT ape B. dump C. tape D. xcopy Answer: A,B
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In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component? A. management and intelligence capabilities B. Cisco security platforms C. third-party applications D. security intelligence operations Answer: B
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Share some CCDP300-320 exam questions and answers below. What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain? A. 30 B. 10 C. 50 D. 100 Answer: C
Which technology allows network managers to centrally manage the VLAN database? A. VTP B. VLAN C. VSS D. vPC Answer: A
When an enterprise network is designed, which protocol provides redundancy for edge devices in the event of a first-hop failure? A. ICMP B. HSRP C. STP D. HTTP Answer: B
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network? A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm B. Johnson's algorithm C. Dijkstra's algorithm D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm Answer: C
Which unique EIGRP feature allows for faster Layer 3 convergence? A. fast EIGRP timers B. feasible successors C. hybrid routing protocol D. Cisco proprietary protocol Answer: B
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device? A. connect to other data centers B. connect to the access layer C. connect to the end users D. connect to mobile devices Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two features can enable high availability for first-hop Layer 3 redundancy? (Choose two.) A. VPC B. IGMP V2 C. VRRP D. PIM E. HSRP Answer: C, E
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management? A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management. B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage. C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices. Answer: B
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